Question #38

In the NWT, every time the Greek word "proskuneo"  is used in reference to God, it is translated as "worship" (Rev 5:14, 7:11, 11:16, 19:4, Jn 4:20, etc.). Every time "proskuneo" is used in reference to Jesus, it is translated as "obeisance" (Mt 14:33, 28:9,28:17, Lk 24:52, Heb 1:6, etc.), even though it is the same word in the Greek (see Gr-Engl Interlinear). Especially compare the Greek word "prosekunhsan" used with reference to God in Rev 5:14, 7:11, 11:16, and 19:4 and used with reference to Christ in Mt 14:33, 28:9, and 28:17. What is the reason for this inconsistency? If the NWT was consistent in translating "proskuneo" as "worship", how would the verses above referring to Christ read?
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The translators of the NWT are not inconsistent in their translation of the word “proskyneo.” They explain in the pages of the Watchtower that when proskyneo is used in connection with any person other than God they decided to use the term obeisance. For example, in the LXX Abraham bowed before the men of Canaan. Obviously Abraham was not worshipping those men though. But the Greek term used is proskyneo. And there are other instances where the term is used in connection with men bowing before others as a show of honor. For example, Nebuchadnezzar bowed before Daniel and in the LXX the very same proskyneo appears.

Basically, proskyneo can be alternatively translated either as worship or obeisance, depending on the context. Oddly, the word is related to the Greek word for dog and connotes a dog cringing or cowering at the feet of its master.

No doubt the reason the translators of the NWT make a distinction between worship and obeisance is due to the fact that for centuries clergy, translators and scholars associated with the Bible have done their best to obscure the special relationship that exists between Jehovah and Jesus; so that now the average churchgoer is completely ignorant of it. Satan would have us believe that Jesus is God, because it is a lie. Jesus is the son of God.

But when Jehovah’s Witnesses are confronted with this type of question, which is intended to trick a person into imagining that Jesus is God, since others bowed before him, the question really ought to be asked: Who did Jesus himself worship? No Trinitarian can supply a sensible answer, since even the most unreasonable Trinitarian would likely realize the nonsensical aspect of Jesus worshipping himself. 

But on his last night as a human, when he was in the Garden of Gethsamane sweating blood, the account says that Jesus fell upon his face, beseeching God. That expression is the same as doing obeisance. So, Christ did obeisance, or an act of worship, to God. 

The truth is, Jehovah is God but he has decreed that all creation must bow before his Son too; not because Jesus is God in his own right, but because Jesus proved his undying love for God and his unbreakable devotion to him. With the powers he is given Jesus intends to bring all creation back into worshipful subjection to the one whom he called “my God.” 

Question #39

The NWT translates the Greek word "kyrios"  as "Jehovah" more than 25 times in the New Testament (Mt 3:3, Lk 2:9, Jn 1:23, Acts 21:14, Rom 12:19, Col 1:10, lThess5:2, 1Pet 1:25, Rev 4:8, etc.). Why is the word "Jehovah" translated when it does not appear in the Greek text? Why is the NWT not consistent in translating kyrios (kurion) as "Jehovah" in Rom 10:9, 1Cor 12:3, Phil 2:11, 2Thess 2:1. and Rev 22:21 (see Gr- Engl Interlinear)?

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In the original Hebrew and even in the Greek Septuagint, the personal name of God, represented by the four letters, YHWH, appeared almost 7,000 times. But modern translators have removed all traces of God’s name and have instead substituted it with “LORD.” This bias against the name of God obviously is promoted by that spirit liar, Satan the Devil. He originally over-reached the Jews, inducing them to stop pronouncing YHWH on the basis that the name was too holy to even be uttered by men. But we may be sure that Jesus and the apostles were not influenced by such ignorant superstition. Jesus and the apostles many times quoted directly from the Hebrew Scriptures, citing passages where the YHWH appeared.

For example, when Jesus went to the synagogue and introduced himself as the Messiah he read from the scroll, what we call Isaiah 61:1, which reads: “The spirit of the Sovereign Lord Jehovah is upon me, for the reason that Jehovah has anointed me to tell good news to the meek ones. He has sent me to bind up the brokenhearted, to proclaim liberty to those taken captive and the wide opening of the eyes even to the prisoners...”

Since it is unthinkable that Jesus would have followed the wicked Jewish tradition of avoiding uttering the name of his Father, the question Jehovah’s Witnesses ought to ask persons who ask why the name of Jehovah appears in the New Testament is why the name of Jehovah has been removed?

Since the insidious bias against the name of God by men in positions to directly influence modern Bible translations, as well as copies of ancient texts is undeniable, responsible translators who are devoted to the bearer of the divine name have the right and responsibility to place the name of God in all texts in the New Testament where the Hebrew text containing the YHWH were quoted, as well as where the context indicates a distinction ought to be made between the Lord Jesus and the Lord Jehovah.

Ultimately, Jehovah himself will force the peoples of the world to recognize his name and supremacy and those who have sought to push Jehovah out of the picture will suffer humiliation.

Question #40

The NWT translates the Greek words "ego eimi"  as "I am" every time it appears (Jn 6:34, 6:41, 8:24, 13:19, 15:5, etc.), except in Jn 8:58 where it is translated as "I have been". What is the reason for the inconsistency in this translation? If "ego eimi" was translated in Jn 8:58 the same way it is translated in every other verse in which it appears, how would Jn 8:58 read? See Exo 3:14.

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If ego eimi is transliterated into English with no consideration for the context and intended meaning then you would have a nonsensical expression, as is the case with most translations that attempt to make a proper noun out of the predicate, ego eimi. It demonstrates the power of brainwashing, that otherwise literate people can read John 8:58 in popular versions and pretend that the verse actually makes sense. In reality, popular versions of John 8:58 are grammatically incorrect. It is amusing that trinitarians are so desperate to make Jesus out to be God that they insist on using fraudulent translations of the Scriptures.

Question #41

In Rev 22:12-13, Jesus Christ, the one who is "coming quickly", says of himself," I am the Alpha and the Omega, the first and the last, the beginning and the end". In Rev 1:17-18, Jesus, the one who "became dead, but, look! I am living forever and ever", refers to himself as the first and the last. Rev 21:6, in speaking of God, says, "...I am the Alpha and the Omega, the beginning and the end .,.". God is also referred to as the "first" and the "last" in Isa 44:6 and Isa 48:12. How can this be since by definition of these words there can only be one first and one last?

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The questioners' definition of first and last does not take into consideration the unique unique relationship that exists between God and Jesus. God, of course, has always existed and will always exist. In that respect he is the First and Last. But, Jesus has the distinction of being the firstborn of all creation, the first born again son of God, hence Paul described him as the firstborn of many brothers (God does not have any brothers - only sons) Jesus is also firstborn from the dead, that he may be first in all things among God’s creation. Jesus is also the last Adam and the last in the sense that no other creation will ever usurp his greatness or replace him as the preeminent son of Jehovah. 

Question #42

Jesus uses the phrase "Truly I say to you,..." over 50 times in the Bible. In the NWT, the comma is placed after the word "you" every time except in Lk 23:43, where the comma is placed after the word "today". Why is the comma placed after "today" instead of after "you" in this verse? If the translation of this phrase in Lk 23:43 was consistent with the translation of this phrase in all the other verses in which it appears (see concordance), and the comma was placed after the word "you", how would it read?

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The questioner surely knows that the original Greek did not have punctuation such as commas. The modern language translators must insert commas and other punctuation marks according to the context and known rules of grammar.

The translators of the New World Translation were consistent in their use of commas as regards punctuating the phrase in question. For a certainty, the phrase “truly I say to you today” only occurs once in the Gospels. The questioner seems to imply that the phrase is more common than that and that the NWT inconsistently inserts a comma in one place. This is misleading. Typically, Jesus’ phrase is rendered simply: “truly I say to you.” However, on a few occasions Jesus said “truly I say to you men,” or “truly I say to you people,” - in those instances the comma appears after “men” and “people,” which is consistent with the way it is rendered at Luke 23:43.

Besides merely the mechanical process of inserting punctuation according to rules of grammar, honest translators should also be aware of the intent and meaning on the passage. In the instance of Luke 23:43 most translations render that verse in a way that might give an uneducated person the impression that Jesus was telling the thief that he would be with Christ in paradise that very day. Of course, that is not what Jesus intended to say at all. Jesus did not go to paradise that day. Everyone who has read the account of Jesus’ death surely knows that Jesus died that very day. Instead of paradise Jesus went to Hell, at least according to the King James Bible.

Jehovah’s Witnesses, of course, understand that Jesus was simply in the grave for parts of three days. On the third day Jehovah resurrected Jesus from death. This is the basic, essential truth of the Scriptures. To imply that Jesus and the thief were any place other than in the grave betrays a massive ignorance of a very simple truth. And those who know otherwise but who insist on propping up a fiction by inserting a comma where it does not belong are dishonest and deceptive and have no credibility.

Question #43

Jn 1:3 says in reference to Christ, "All things came into existence through him, and apart from him not even one thing came into existence". How could Christ have been a created being if ALL things came into existence through him? If Jesus was a created being, then according to Jn 1:3, Jesus would have had to create himself.

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This question really underscores the stupidity behind pretending one verse or one passage of Scripture establishes the truth. In reality, the Bible is a unified, harmonious book. This question really springs from a deep-seated hatred of the truth. 

The truth is, the Scriptures reveal Jesus to be the only-begotten son of God. What does that mean? The Bible reveals that Jesus is the Firstborn son of Jehovah God. And as the first creation of God, who was made to be Jehovah's exact representation, and after God gave birth to his first son he then empowered him to create all other things. So, the creature that eventually came to earth as Jesus was the only person directly created by the Father. Everything else came into existence through the Firstborn. 

No doubt the questioner understands this is what the Bible teaches but, as so many, he (or she) prefers lies to truth and wishes to mislead others. 

Question #44

If the great crowd is to have everlasting life on paradise EARTH, why does IThess 4:17 say, "...we the living who are surviving will, together with them, be caught away in clouds to MEET THE LORD IN THE AIR; and thus we shall always be with the Lord"?

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In the preceding verse Paul stated that those dead in union with Christ will rise first. Being in union with Christ means that they have been anointed and are part of the so-called body of Christ. But, sober readers ought to take note of the fact that Paul stated that the chosen ones will rise "first." This is in harmony with Revelation 20:6, which refers to the holy ones who experience the blessed "first resurrection." Now, if there is a first resurrection, that means that there is a secondary resurrection, otherwise it is meaningless to designate it as the first. The second resurrection is the earthly resurrection of both the righteous and the unrighteous, as Jesus indicated when he said that all those in the memorial tombs will hear his voice and come out and those who practiced vile things will have a probationary resurrection of judgment.

In contrast with those holy ones who are dead during the presence of Christ, Paul's reference to "we the living" is also in reference to those in union with Christ. But just as there are those dead who are not in union with Christ who will experience the second resurrection of the dead, there will also be living persons on earth during the presence of Christ who are not in union with Christ, but who are obedient to the faith. Revelation refers to these as a great crowd of people who will survive the great tribulation and remain on the earth as the nucleus of a new world.

Question #45

If Christians are persecuted for the sake of Jehovah's name, why did Christ tell the first Christians that they would be persecuted for the sake of his (Jesus') name instead of Jehovah's (Mt 24:9, Mk 13:13, Lk 21:12, 17, Jn 15:2 and Acts 9:16)?

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True Christians are persecuted for the sake of Jehovah and Jesus. For example, there has never been a war that Trinitarians have not supported and joined in the bloodletting. Evangelicals are the most ardent Zionists and flag-waving warmongers. So, they would never be persecuted by a war-loving society. Jehovah's Witnesses, on the other hand, have gone to prison by the thousands in order to be true to Christ. In that respect they are persecuted for Jesus' sake.

Question #46

In Mt 1:23, who is Matthew referring to here that has been given the name which means "With Us Is God"?

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Jehovah's only-begotten son, Jesus.

Question #47

The Bible says that ONLY God is our savior (Hos 13:4, Isa 43:11,45:21, etc.). How can it be then, that the Bible repeatedly says that Jesus Christ is our savior (Lk 2:11, Phil 3:20. Tit 2:13, 3:6, 2Pet 1:1, 2:20, 3:18, etc.)?

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The Bible teaches that Jehovah gave his only-begotten son in order that everyone who obeys him might be saved through him. Because Jesus was faithful to God unto death he has become the savior. The very name of Jesus means "Jehovah is salvation." Even a young child can understand that a father and son are not the same person. But those who have been indoctrinated in Babylon's trinity cannot comprehend the most simple concepts and as a result are willingly blind to the truth.

Question #48

Referring to Isa 14:9-17, if there is no conscious awareness after death, how could Sheol "... become agitated at you in order to meet you on coming in..." (v.9), how could the souls in Sheol "... speak up and say to you..." (v.10-11), how could the souls in Sheol when "...seeing you will gaze even at you; they will give close examination even to you, [saying,] This this the man'..." (v. 16-17), and how would you be aware that this was happening?

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The questioner seems to be suggesting that rotting corpses laid to rest in their graves on beds of maggots can actually sit up and speak. This question obviously springs from a dimly lit mind that cannot grasp allusion and metaphor. Jehovah's Witnesses should not even waste their time trying to explain the deep things of prophecy to someone who cannot comprehend the most elemental things of the Scriptures, such as what death actually entails.

Question #49

Heb 3:1 refers to "holy brothers, partakers of the heavenly calling". In Mk 3:35, Jesus says, "Whoever does the will of God, this one is my brother..." Therefore, according to the Bible, whoever does the will of God is a brother of Jesus and a partaker of the heavenly calling. How can this be if the Watchtower Society teaches that only 144,000 people go to heaven?

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The truth is, the heavenly calling is by invitation only. Paul explained that the calling does not depend upon the one wishing, but upon God's choosing. That is why the Bible uses the expression "the chosen ones." Jehovah personally chooses those whom he wishes to adopt as sons - even as Paul indicates in the verse cited by referring to the "heavenly calling." A person may wish with all of the heart to go to heaven, but if God does not call a person and draw them into union with Christ then those who merely claim to be called, when they have not truly been called, are mere frauds and charlatans and deluded fools. And there are masses of persons who profess to be called to heaven, who boast of prophesying in the name of the "Lord," but in the day of judgment Christ will say to them: "Get away from me, you workers of lawlessness."

According to the Bible only 144,000 will master the new song and join Christ in heaven. The vast majority of Jehovah's Witnesses, instead of presuming to be called ones, embrace the hope of everlasting life on earth. The presumptuous and untaught will lose out entirely because of their refusal to accept salvation on Jehovah's terms.

A great crowd will never die.

Question #50

Heb 11:16, in speaking about some of the faithful people of the Old Testament (Abel, Noah, Abraham, etc.) says, "But now they are reaching out for a better [place], that is, one belonging to heaven..." and,"... their God for he has made a city ready for them." The footnote on the word "city" refers to HEAVENLY Jerusalem of Heb 12:22 and Rev 21:2. How can this be since according to the teachings of the Watchtower Society, the only people who will go to heaven are the 144,000 spirit anointed who have been chosen from people who lived after Christ died?

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The preceding verses says that the pre-Christian men and women of faith died and did not receive the fulfillment of the promise. They are, however, in line to receive the blessings of the kingdom, in that sense, it is as though they are reaching out. Revelation 21:2, which the questioner even cites here, clearly reveals that the holy city of God, which is the heavenly kingdom of Christ and the 144,000 chosen ones, is going to symbolically come down from heaven to the earth - meaning, that God's kingdom is going to extent its power over all aspects of life on earth. So, Abraham was awaiting for God's kingdom to rule the earth.

Sadly, it is a case of the questioner being untaught and painfully ignorant of the basic concepts, symbolic language and subtle nuances of the Bible. I am sure Jehovah's Witnesses in your locale would be happy to assist with a free home Bible study. Of course, the Scriptures make reference to those who were rightly disposed for everlasting life in the first century, which means, conversely, there are those who are not rightly disposed to accept salvation on God's terms.

Question #51

In Lk 24:36-39 and in Jn 20:26-27, Jesus showed his disciples the wounds in his body as proof of his resurrection. If Jesus' body had been destroyed by God after he died, how could Jesus show the disciples his body which had the wounds in his hands, feet, and side and claim that he is not just a spirit, "because a spirit does not have flesh and bones just as you behold that I have" (Lk 24:39)?

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Jesus appeared to his disciples on numerous occasions and each time he appeared differently. Usually the disciples recognized him by what he said and not by his appearance. However, because Thomas declared that he would never accept the reports of Jesus' resurrection unless he could touch the wounds Jesus materialized a body with wound marks as a way of convincing and rebuking Thomas. Jesus said that a spirit does not have flesh and bones because he wanted to assure them that he was not a vision or apparition. It was not uncommon for angels to materialize flesh, in which case a materialized angel has substance - flesh and bone.

But, that Christ was actually resurrected as a spirt is made plain in the writings of the apostles, namely Peter and Paul, who both wrote that Jesus was resurrected as a life-giving spirit. Besides, Jesus explained to the Samaritan woman very plainly, that "God is a spirit." And, as Paul later explained to the Philippians, prior to his coming to earth Jesus existed in God's form. In other words, he was a spirit too. The last night of his life as a man Jesus asked his Father to glorify him with the glory that he previously had alongside Jehovah in heaven. That is to say, Jesus asked to go back home to the spirit dimension.

Question #52

If Christ was created by God and was the wisdom of God (Prov 8:1-4, 12, 22-31), then before Jesus would have been created, God would have had to have been without wisdom. How is it possible that God could have ever been without wisdom?

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There is an old saying, something to the effect: If a tree falls in the forest and no one is there to hear the crash, does it make any sound?

Of course, we may be sure that it does. But the point is, I think, that if no one hears it, it doesn’t matter. So too with God. It is a staggering thought to contemplate, truly incomprehensible and positively frightening, but Jehovah has always existed and before he became the Creator he was alone – forever. Of course, we cannot comprehend timelessness, but it was not as though God were twiddling his thumbs for an eternity. But, at some point Jehovah determined to become a Creator. And we should all be glad at that happy decision. So, then, his very first creation is called the Word, the Firstborn of all creation. And with the birth of the only-begotten son of God the Scriptures tell us that God saw fit to have all wisdom and knowledge and power dwell in his son, who later became Christ Jesus.This is what the Scriptures teach and it is what Jehovah's Witnesses believe.

The point is, God has always been wise, in fact the scripture says of God, 'you alone are wise.' But with the coming into existence of the Firstborn, at that point God’s wisdom became manifest. And as more creatures came into existence through the powers and wisdom given to the Word, they could then appreciate the wisdom of God, which was first expressed in the beginning of creation in the Word.

That is why the Proverbs personifies the quality of wisdom because, before God created so much as an atom or molecule, he made a heavenly person, a son, to be in his exact image and representation. 

Again, that is what the Bible teaches and it is what Jehovah's Witnesses believe.

Question #53

Rev 7:11 says that "before the throne" is in heaven where "all the angels were standing". Rev 14:2-3 says "And I heard a sound out of heaven ... And they were singing as if a new song before the throne ...". Rev 7:9 says,"... look, a great crowd ... standing before the throne...". Rev 7:14-15 says, "...There are the ones that come out of the great tribulation ... That is why they are before the throne of God ..." Therefore, if "before the throne " means in heaven (Rev 7:11, 14:2-3), and the "great crowd" is "before the throne" (Rev 7:9, 7:14-15), where does that mean that the great crowd will be?

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The expression “standing before the throne” does not necessarily always mean that the one is literally in heaven before Jehovah. For example, Jesus warned his followers to “Keep awake, then, all the time making supplication that you may succeed in escaping all these things that are destined to occur, and in standing before the Son of man.”

The Son of man, of course, is in heaven, but his disciples on earth are spoken of as standing before him. In what sense? When God judges people they are spoken of as standing before him. So, those who keep standing before the Son of man are those who will receive a favorable judgment. Elsewhere, the Bible states that the wicked will not stand up in the judgment. That means they will receive an adverse judgment. 

The fact that the great crowd is spoken of as standing before the throne and also coming out of the great tribulation, means that they survive the tribulation and receive a favorable judgment. 

The 21^st chapter of Revelation makes it very clear that people are going to survive the end of the world, because it states that in the aftermath of the judgment God will be with mankind and they will be his peoples.

Question #54

In Lk 20:37-38, how could Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob be "all living to him (God)", since they all died hundreds of years before Jesus said this?
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This is a very simple question for Jehovah’s Witnesses to answer. As with all questions that narrowly focus on one verse or one phrase within a verse, or even one word or letter, it is usually advisable to read the context. In this case the immediate context states:

“In fact, neither can they die anymore, for they are like the angels, and they are God’s children by being children of the resurrection. But that the dead are raised up even Moses disclosed, in the account about the thornbush, when he calls Jehovah ‘the God of Abraham and God of Isaac and God of Jacob.’ He is a God, not of the dead, but of the living, for they are all living to him.”

Jesus had been asked a question by the Saducees who did not believe in a resurrection and he answered by explaining that Jehovah will indeed bring the dead back to life because he is the God of the living and he has the power to resurrect any whom he chooses. Obviously, Jesus was not saying that Abraham was actually living. The point of discussion had to do with the resurrection, which the Jews understood to mean a return from the grave. What Jesus was saying is that although they were dead from a human standpoint “they are all living to him.” Since God has the power and intent to bring the dead back it is as though they have not died.

Ironically, just as the Saducees did not believe in a resurrection, the untaught masses of churchgoers today do not believe in a resurrection either. Although claiming to be Bible believers, the basic doctrines of Christendom, such as the immortal soul, are really rewrapped beliefs that originated in ancient Babel. Actually, the belief in an undying soul is as old as humanity itself, going back to the Garden of Eden and the first lie from the Father of the lie: "You positively will not die." 

Hope for Dead Loved Ones

Question #55

If the soul dies when the body dies, how could the "souls" of Rev 6:9- 11, who were of those who had been "slaughtered" (i.e., killed), cry out "with a loud voice, saying: 'Until when Sovereign Lord ..."?

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As most people likely realize, the Bible is full of symbolism, metaphor and allegory. How should we understand Genesis 4:10, where God said to Cain after he killed his brother: "Listen! Your brother's blood is crying out to be from the ground?" Are we to suppose that blood has some special capacity we are not aware of that allows blood to silently communicate with God? Is it not more reasonable that the account in Genesis is simply a graphic way of saying that Abel's spilled blood demanded God to establish justice in his case by avenging his murder?

Since that is obviously the case, Revelation 6:9 uses that same sort of allusion to symbolize how Jehovah must eventually avenge the deaths of his chosen ones at the war of Armageddon. Besides, the Bible clearly teaches that the dead are asleep in the ground until the return of Christ. There is simply no allowance in scripture for any soul to join Christ in heaven before that time.

Question #56

In Mt 28:19, Jesus tells his disciples to baptize "people of all the nations ...in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the holy spirit". Why would the disciples be instructed to baptize in the name of anybody or anything who was not God? Do Jehovah's Witnesses follow the command of Jesus and baptize "in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the holy spirit"?
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Yes. 

Question #57

#57 If the human soul IS the person, how could the soul go out of a person (Gen 35:18) or come back into a person (1 Kings 17:21)?

Jehovah’s Witnesses do not teach that the meaning of the word soul is always restricted to mean the person. For certain that is the most common way the word is used in the Scriptures but the Jews also used it to denote the life of the person. Hence, if soul goes out of a person that means they died. If soul returns to a person that means they come back to life as a living soul, which was what occurred in the case where Elijah resurrected a child that had recently died.  

In the 53^rd chapter of Isaiah the prophet foretold that Christ would ‘pour out his soul to the very death.’ Since the Bible says the soul of the flesh is in the blood, in the case of Christ he poured out his life blood – his soul – to the very death. 

The Soul and the Spirit - What Do They Mean?

Question #58

#58 The Watchtower Society teaches that the earth will never be destroyed or depopulated. How can it be, then, that God says in Isa 51:6,"... the earth itself will wear out, and its inhabitants will die like a mere gnat...", and that Jesus says in Mt 24:35, "Heaven and earth will pass away...", and that John says in Rev 21:1 that he saw"... a new heaven and a NEW earth, for the former heaven and the FORMER earth had passed away, and the sea is NO MORE."?

Elsewhere the Bible says the earth will remain forever, for example Psalms 104:5.

So, does the Bible contradict itself? No, the problem is that people do not understand the Bible, and as Peter foretold unlearned and unsteady individuals twist the Scriptures, to their own destruction.

In the instance of Isaiah, Jehovah was contrasting the fragile temporary nature of all creation, particularly of the human civilization, with the surety and permanence of God’s salvation. The prophecy of Isaiah contains judgment messages that initially applied to Israel and the mighty empires of Assyria and Babylon. God foretold that he would overthrow those seemingly permanent institutions, which he did, which other prophecies likened to the heavens crashing and the toppling of mountains.

In the case of Israel, though, God stated that he was creating a new heavens and a new earth. That promise was fulfilled in miniature when Jerusalem was re-inhabited and given a new governor and priest. But obviously God did not create a new universe and new planet. Those are simply expressions to denote the grandness of God’s work.

When Christ said heaven and earth would pass away before his word failed to come true, that was not a statement declaring the earth was going to be destroyed. It was meant to emphasize the sureness of his word that the present system would be destroyed; that, if it were possible, the heavens and earth would fail before one letter of his word did. In truth, neither the heavens nor earth, nor the words of Jesus will ever fail, including his promise that the meek will inherit the earth. 

A New Heavens and New Earth

Question #59

#59 Referring to Lk 12:4-5, what would be left of a person after they were killed that could be thrown into Gehenna?

What is left of a person is whether they are retained in God’s memory or not. Gehenna was a garbage dump outside the walls of Jerusalem. Large chunks of sulfur were thrown into the open pit to feed fires that consumed the refuse. Hence, the everlasting fire of Gehenna, wrongly translated as hell fire. 

The carcasses of dead animals were thrown into Gehenna, as well as the dead bodies of criminals the Jews judged to be unworthy of a proper burial and unfit for a resurrection. So, Jesus used Gehenna as a symbol of everlasting destruction. Jesus was contrasting temporary death with permanent death by explaining that men may kill us but they cannot send us into Gehenna. Jehovah can also kill, but only he determines who will and who will not receive a resurrection. Better to die because of faithfulness to God rather than compromise and displease God only to face the judgment of Gehenna.

Question #60

Who or what does the spirit of Christ (Phil 1:19, Gal 4:6, Rom 8:9) refer to? In Gal 4:6, how is it possible that the spirit of Christ could come into our hearts? How is it possible that the spirit of CHRIST could reside in someone? If what the Watchtower Society teaches is true, how could Paul make this statement if Christ was a spirit person residing in heaven?

Christ resides within believers who have the mind of Christ, who imitate the faith of Jesus and have his temperament. 

Question #61

 In Jn 8:56, Jesus says, "Abraham your father rejoiced greatly in the prospect of seeing my day, and he saw it and rejoiced". Since Abraham died hundreds of years before Jesus said this, how could Jesus say that Abraham "saw it and rejoiced", if there is no conscious awareness after death?

Jesus used the past tense of “see,” meaning when Abraham was alive he saw Christ’s day. The Jews did not understand Jesus to be saying that Abraham was then alive somewhere witnessing Christ’s day at that moment. That is why they asked Jesus if he was older than Abraham.

But what did Jesus mean? Abraham saw Christ’s day because he lived a prophetic drama that foreshadowed the birth and death of Jesus – Abraham playing the role of Jehovah. First, Abraham and his wife miraculously conceived Isaac – just as Jesus’ birth was miraculous. Secondly, when Isaac was grown Abraham as good as sacrificed his only son through Sarah – picturing, obviously, Jehovah sacrificing his only-begotten son. So, in that respect Abraham “saw” Jesus’ day because he apparently understood that the promised seed would be born in the manner of Isaac and serve as a ransom sacrifice.

But, of course, Abraham is dead. He is dead and waiting to be resurrected. That is what the Bible teaches – resurrection of the dead, not immortality of the soul.

Question #62

In Jn 6:51, Jesus says that a person must eat "of this bread" in order to "live forever", and that "the bread that I give IS my flesh". In Jn 6:63, Jesus says "... Unless you eat the flesh of the son of man and drink his blood, you have no life in yourselves." In Jn 6:54-55, Jesus says, "He that feeds on my flesh and drinks my blood has everlasting life..." and "... for my flesh is true food and my blood is true drink." Do you partake of the flesh of Christ, as Jesus commanded, in order to have life in yourself and in order to live forever?

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Yes. Many of Jehovah’s Witnesses who consider themselves to be anointed partake of the emblems on the anniversary of Christ’s death. Jesus referred to the wine as the blood of the covenant. So those who are in the new covenant by virtue of being anointed by the holy spirit drink of the cup.

It should be noted though, that having life in oneself means that ultimately those who are born again will become immortal and indestructible spirits.

Conversely, the vast majority of mankind will receive an earthly resurrection. Even those who were unrighteous and godless will be brought back to life. For them it was not necessary to acknowledge Jehovah or Christ in any way, yet the prospect of everlasting life (not immortality) will be set before them based upon their life course after their resurrection. That is why Jesus called it a “resurrection of judgment.”

Question #63

#63 In Acts 17:31 Paul says, "Because he has set a day in which he purposes to judge the inhabited earth in righteousness by a MAN whom he has appointed, and he has furnished a guarantee to all men in that he has resurrected him from the dead". Did Paul believe that the future judge of the world, Jesus Christ, would be an immortal MAN or an invisible spirit creature?

There is no such thing as an immortal man. That is a contradiction in terms. Humans, by nature, are quite mortal. The Bible frequently uses the expression “mortal man” – but never “immortal man.”

(This question may arise from a misunderstanding of what it means to be immortal. Humans may indeed live forever. However, merely having everlasting life is not what immortality is. After all, Adam and Eve were created with the potential to live forever. But they were quite mortal and died due to their disobedience. On the other hand, immortality means having life in oneself – possessing indestructibility and deathlessness.)

Since his resurrection Jesus is an immortal spirit. Paul stated that fact very plainly at 1 Corinthians 15:45, saying: “The first man Adam became a living soul. The last Adam became a life-giving spirit."

Jesus was the "last Adam" because he was the last perfect earthly son that God will ever produce. But since his resurrection from the dead Jesus is now a life-giving spirit.

The silliness of this sort of question is apparent when one considers the fact that those who believe that Jesus is still a flesh and blood man also believe him to be God Almighty. Yet, when Jesus was on earth he explained to a Samaritan woman that God is a spirit. What has happened so that God is now a man, according to the popular delusion anyway? People do not stop to consider the contradictions they embrace and espouse as the truth.

Paul, of all people, knew that Jesus was an immortal spirit. After all, when he was the Pharisee, Saul, he had a close encounter with the glorified Christ – an encounter that left him blind for three days.

So, then, why did Paul later say that God had appointed a man, Jesus Christ? Because, it was when Jesus was a man on earth that God anointed him to become the King, High priest and Judge. That appointment came about on the day Jesus was baptized and anointed.

Jehovah himself also describes himself in what is called anthropomorphic terms – in human terms, so that we may understand him better. He describes himself has having human features, like hands and fingers, eyes and ears, and feelings, etc. But God is not human. Never has been. Never will be. But Jesus has been. Although Jesus is no longer a man, he has had experience as a man and undoubtedly developed greater compassion for humanity having lived among us.  And as stated, it was while he was upon earth as the Son of man that he gained the appointment to become King.

The absurdity of the notion that Jesus is still a man ought to be apparent to anyone willing to reason upon a few basic facts. 

Consider, for example, that humans can only live in certain, very limited conditions. For instance, we have to breathe. Just a few minutes without oxygen and mortal man expires. Are we to assume that this immortal man in heaven has a steady supply of oxygen on hand? Also, we have to sleep regularly – typically eight hours per day. If deprived of sleep for just a few days people are prone to have a psychotic breakdown. And, of course, there is the matter of food and water and all the thousands of biological functions that go with that. Are we to suppose that the superman in heaven breathes and eats and drinks and sleeps and goes to the toilet and all the other things that go with being human? But if the believers in such nonsense suppose Jesus does not have any biologic needs or limitations, then in what way is he a man?