Thursday, June 23, 2011

Question # 19

In Jn 20:28, John refers to Jesus in Greek as "Ho kyrios moy kai ho theos moy". This translates literally as "the Lord of me and THE God of me". Why does Jesus, in Jn 20:29, affirm Thomas for having come to this realization? If Jesus really wasn't the Lord and THE God of Thomas, why didn't Jesus correct him for making either a false assumption or a blasphemous statement?

First, Jesus did not affirm that he was God. He merely said, 'because you have seen me you believe?' If persons declare themselves to be worshippers of Jesus based upon the declaration of Thomas, who prior to his seeing Jesus had declared himself to be an unbeliever, then basically such persons betray themselves as not worshipping Jesus' God. 

And really that is the whole point. Satan does not want persons to worship the One whom Jesus addressed as "the only true God." 

Immediately after Jesus was resurrected he told Mary to stop clinging to him because he had not yet ascended to "my God and your God." So, the question Jehovah's Witnesses ought to pose to those who claim that Jesus is God is: Who is Jesus' God? 

It is a simple question, but no trinitarian can supply a sensible answer. 

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