If Jesus was executed on a torture stake, with both hands together over his head, as only the WTS teaches, why does Jn 20:25 say "... unless I see in his hands the print of the nailS...", indicating that there was more than one nail used for his hands? Two nails would have been used if he was crucified on a cross.
The original Greek words that are translated as cross in popular versions are xylon and starous, which mean tree and stake, respectively. So, that is a pretty good indication that Jesus was not put to death on a cross. It turns out that the cross was in use as a religious symbol long before Jesus came to earth. When original Christianity became corrupted and hijacked by the Roman empire eventually the cross was instituted as the very symbol of Christianity - thus Satan inserted his pagan symbol in that which claimed to belong to Christ. As far as two nails, that could be understood to mean the two nail prints, one in each hand. Given the foregoing, it certainly should not be the determining factor.