Wednesday, June 8, 2011

Question #31

If the name Jehovah is so important, then why is it never used in the entire Greek New Testament? If men edited out the proper name of God, "YHWH", when they copied the New Testament, as only the WTS claims, thereby altering God's word, then how can we have confidence in ANY of the New Testament? Should we discard the New Testament or the WTS as unreliable?


Satan has long sought to remove God’s name, not just merely from the Bible, but more especially, from the minds and tongues of men.

It is a known fact that the Hebrew letters representing God’s name, YHWH, appeared nearly 7,000 times in the original Hebrew. That Tetragrammaton was also used in the first Greek translations, called the Septuagint. However, eventually the pious Jews came up with a scheme to stop pronouncing the YHWH on the pretext it was too holy to be uttered. That tendency was exposed by Jehovah himself in the 23rd chapter of Jeremiah, where God stated: “They are thinking of making my people forget my name by means of their dreams that they keep relating each one to the other, just as their fathers forgot my name by means of Baal.”

Modern religionists have gone one step further, they have removed any semblance of YHWH from their translations of the Bible altogether. Even the four places where it appeared in the original King James Version have since been expunged in the latest revision. So, clearly the tendency is there on the part of religious authorities and translators to get rid of God’s name. The intent is to make people believe Jesus is God and shove Jehovah out of the picture.

Now when it comes to why the Greek copies do not have the divine name, consider the fact that Jesus and the apostles often quoted from the Hebrew text or possibly the Greek Septuagint, and it was often the case that the quoted text contained the YHWH. 

For example, when Jesus introduced himself as the Messiah in the synagogue in Nazareth he read directly from the first two verses of the 61st chapter of Isaiah, a passage where the divine name appeared in two places in both the Hebrew and Greek then extant. 

It is merely a matter of common sense then to ask, would Jesus have followed a Jewish custom of not pronouncing God’s name, a name Jesus himself said he had made known to men? Obviously, the answer is no. Jesus would have pronounced the name. The question then becomes, why doesn’t it appear in the Greek copies in existence today? 

Since there are no original Greek Scriptures in existence that were produced by the apostles and other Gospel writers, the only sensible answer is that in later centuries Satan the Devil over-reached copyists and induced them to remove God's name from their copies. Given the undeniable hatred of the name that has been manifested from ancient times to the present, there is no doubt that is what occurred. 

Why not discard the rest of the Bible, the questioner asks? Multitudes of Christians in Christendom have, in effect, done just that. It does them little good anyway. Like Jesus said, ‘Why do you call me Lord and yet do not do the things I say?’

During the day of Jehovah, now about to break upon the world, the nations will be forced to know that he is Jehovah and only those who call upon the name of Jehovah in faith will be saved. It is the perfect judgment from Jehovah and a fitting end for those who love the lie. 

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